Translation issues in the GNT involving negation

In "correct" English, one is not to use double negatives.

I do not have none.
I don't have none.
I ain't got none.

Most languages of the world use double negatives to emphasize the negative aspect of what is being said. So too does Ancient (and modern) Greek. This can create certain translation issues in the GNT (Greek New Testament).

A double negative, translated as "no wise", is used in Greek to be an emphatic negative as in "absolutely no way".

"ου" ≈ "no" and "μη" ≈ "not".
"ου μη" ≈ "no not" and appears in 137 verses in the GNT. Aristotle uses this combination so it appears to be not just an Hebrew or Aramaic idea that shows through in Greek.

More: Do not no way use double negatives

! X

X | ! X ------- 0 | 1 0 1 | 0 1

Not True is False
Not False is True

Some other symbols for Not:

¬ (math notation)
! (C-based languages)
not (Python, Lua, Pascal, etc.)

X = not (not X)

not X = not (not (not X))

Logical negation is related to the set complement operation.

What is the opposite of not in?

The opposite of not in is in. That is, in = not (not in)

[inside out]

More: Two-valued logic: Operators

Reasoning correctly about logical negation is difficult for beginning students in computer science, and even for some professional programmers. It is even more difficult for pastors, commentators, theologians, etc.

The content here covers some translation issues in the GNT involving logical negation.

Since ideas such as "negation" can become confusing, it is best to use logic rules as one does algebra - to transform equations and get results without having to think about what it means until the final result.

... more to be added ...

More: Do not no way use double negatives

Matthew 23:3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not. [kjv]

παντα ουν οσα εαν ειπωσιν υμιν ποιησατε και τηρειτε κατα δε τα εργα αυτων μη ποιειτε λεγεουσιν γαρ και ου ποιουσιν [gnt]

Three Greek words for negation appear in this verse.

"δε" ≈ "(but) not". This is a qualified negation (but).
"μη" ≈ "not, no" with something more abstract and potential. For example, of a thought or wish. This is used with "do not after their works" (thought or wish).
"ου" ≈ "not, no" with something more physical and actual. For example, an objective statement of fact. This is used with "do not" for what they "say" (objective statement).

More: Matthew 23:1-4 Jesus fingers the talk about works

Matthew 23:3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not. [kjv]

What does Jesus think of their "works" (abstract and potential) compared to their "say" (physical and actual)?

Do as I say, not as I do.

Greek, as most languages except English, use the double negative for an emphatic "not". The English requires that the middle "not" not be translated.

"ου μη" ≈ "no not" and appears in 137 verses in the GNT.

Greek, as most languages, uses the logical negation when both words are not a plain "not".

More: Do not no way use double negatives

More: Matthew 23:1-4 Jesus fingers the talk about works

John 12:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abideth alone: but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit. [kjv]

αμην αμην λεγω υμιν εαν μη ο κοκκος του σιτου πεσων εις την γην αποθανη αυτος μονος μενει εαν δε αποθανη πολυν καρπον φερει [gnt]

"ἐάν" ≈ "if, when". This is a conditional that is dependent on the following precondition for the following postcondition to apply (bottom-up reasoning). Logically, "if" and "when" have the same meaning.
"μη" ≈ "not, no" with something more abstract and potential as in a thought or wish.
"ου" ≈ "not, no" with something more physical and actual as in a statement of fact.

The KJV (King James Version) translates the Greek words for "if/when" "not" as "except". Does the abstract meaning of "not" make sense here?

More: Do not no way use double negatives

More: John 12:20-30 Conditionally fallen grain of wheat

*G2089 *94 ἔτι (et'-ee) : perhaps akin to G2094; "yet," still (of time or degree):--after that, also, ever, (any) further, (t-)henceforth (more), hereafter, (any) longer, (any) more(-one), now, still, yet.

*G1487 *0 εἰ (i) : a primary particle of conditionality; if, whether, that, etc.:--forasmuch as, if, that, (al-)though, whether. Often used in connection or composition with other particles.

*G3361 *0 μή (may) : a primary particle of qualified negation (whereas G3756 expresses an absolute denial); (adverb) not, (conjunction) lest; also (as an interrogative implying a negative answer (whereas G3756 expects an affirmative one)) whether:--any but (that), X forbear, + God forbid, + lack, lest, neither, never, no (X wise in), none, nor, (can-)not, nothing, that not, un(-taken), without. Often used in compounds in substantially the same relations.

The Strongs definitions of the three words are "yet", "if" and "not", just as used many times by Aristotle. Usage:

«μή» is the negative of thought or wish.
«οὐ» is the negative of objective statements of fact.

However, this does not come through in translation. A modern Greek translation of this verse (omitted) appears to be translation not of the original Greek but of the KJV.

More: Matthew 5:13: Salt of the earth

Matthew 5:13 Ye are the salt of the earth: but if the salt have lost his savour, wherewith shall it be salted? it is thenceforth good for nothing, but to be cast out, and to be trodden under foot of men. [kjv]

υμεις εστε το αλας της γης εαν δε το αλας μωρανθη εν τινι αλισθησεται εις ουδεν ισχυει ετι ει μη βληθεν εξω καταπατεισθαι υπο των ανθρωπων [gnt]

The words for "yet" "if" "not" it translated as "but" in the KJV (and elsewhere).

KJV: but to be cast out ...
Greek: yet if (it is) not thrown out ... (some problems result)

To what does the ambiguous implied "it" refer?

good

effective

"salt"

bad

"not"

effective

"salt"

The statement is in the form of a "counter-factual" in that this division does not exist. The "trodden" happens without the split since the split never happens.

More: Profitable and expedient counterfactual logic

More: Word and parsing ambiguity

A possible play on words for "if not" might be "εἰμί" ≈ "to be, happen".

More: Matthew 5:13: Salt of the earth

Matthew 10:37 He that loveth father or mother more than me is not worthy of me: and he that loveth son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me. [kjv]

ο φιλων πατερα η μητερα υπερ εμε ουκ εστιν μου αξιος και ο φιλων υιον η θυγατερα υπερ εμε ουκ εστιν μου αξιος [gnt]

Luke 14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple. [kjv]

ει τις ερχεται προς με και ου μισει τον πατερα εαυτου και την μητερα και την γυναικα και τα τεκνα και τους αδελφους και τας αδελφας ετι τε και την ψυχην εαυτου ου δυναται ειναι μου μαθητης [gnt]

Now we have a context for the verse in Luke about "hate" and the verse in Matthew about "love". What do each of these verses mean and how do they relate?

The key to the connection is to understand the logical meaning "more than" in Matthew 10:37. The Greek word is that of "over" which has the same logical meaning as "more than".

More: Do not no way use double negatives

More: The shock and awe deception

Book	Spoken by Jesus	Same meaning	Status
Matthew	not (family > Jesus)	family ≤ Jesus	correct
Luke	not (family > Jesus)	family < Jesus	incorrect

Correct logic: Matthew writes down and reports what Jesus spoke.

You should "love" Jesus.
Your family must be "less than or equal to" Jesus. (correct)
You must not "love" (nor condone) the worldly part of your family that are against God more than Jesus.

The incorrect logic goes as follows. Luke reports what was remembered.

You should "love" Jesus.
Your family must be "less than" Jesus. (incorrect)
The opposite of "love" is "hate" (two choices).
Therefore, you must "hate" your family. (incorrect)

More: Do not no way use double negatives

More: The shock and awe deception

Matthew 13:57 And they were offended in him. But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, save in his own country, and in his own house. [kjv]

και εσκανδαλιζοντο εν αυτω ο δε ιησους ειπεν αυτοις ουκ εστιν προφητης ατιμος ει μη εν τη πατριδι και εν τη οικια αυτου [gnt]

The "not" is needed to make the play on words work.

"προφήτας" ≈ "prophets".
"προ" ≈ "before",
"άτιμη" ≈ "without honor, without value, without worth".
"ἀτμός" ≈ "steam, water vapor, odor".

Greek: ... a prophet is not without value if ...
Greek: ... a prophet is of value if ...
Play on words: ... a prophet is not steam/odor if ...

More: Matthew 13:53-58 Prophets and honor

Matthew 13:57 And they were offended in him. But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, save in his own country, and in his own house. [kjv]

if not in country in and I am in the father righteous

"πατρίδα" ≈ "place of one's ancestors" (as used, accusative singular) from "πατρίς" ≈ "place of one's ancestors"

"ει" ≈ "if" and "μη" ≈ "not" and "εἰμί" ≈ "I am".
"εν" ≈ "in" and "τη" ≈ "the" (feminine).
"και" ≈ "and" "εν" ≈ "in" and "ἑν" ≈ "one".
"δίκαιον" ≈ "observant of custom" (singular) from "δίκαιος" ≈ "observant of custom, righteous" and other related meanings. The word is from "δίκη" ≈ "custom,, order, law".

More: Matthew 13:53-58 Prophets and honor

Matthew 24:22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. [kjv]

και ει μη εκολοβωθησαν αι ημεραι εκειναι ουκ αν εσωθη πασα σαρξ δια δε τους εκλεκτους κολοβωθησονται αι ημεραι εκειναι [gnt]

Greek word order: and if not (potential) curtailed/shortened the days those not (actual) if saved all flesh through/by then/however of the elect curtailed/shortened the days those.

Jesus appears to be making a logical statement. Some do not like the use of logic on what Jesus says but, instead, prefer opinion. Everyone can have one or more of a large number of opinions on a matter. There are many fewer logical views of that same matter.

To support the idea of the "elect" or "chosen" being good, the Greek word "by" or "through" was translated as "for".

Let us, however, here consider the logic of what Jesus is saying. To do that, we need to review some logic rules.

More: Matthew 24:21-24 Short day cutoff

Matthew 24:22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. [kjv]

Variable operands for the verse
X	εκολοβωθησαν αι ημεραι εκειναι	those days be shortened
X	κολοβωθησονται αι ημεραι εκειναι	those days be shortened
Y	εσωθη πασα σαρξ	saved all flesh
E	δια (τους) εκλεκτους	by the elect

Connective operators for the verse
if not	ει μη	if not
if not	ουκ αν	if not
but by	δια δε	through but

To support the idea of a good "elect". the Greek for "by" or "through" needs to be changed to "for".

More: Matthew 24:21-24 Short day cutoff

Matthew 24:22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. [kjv]

Let X be "those days/parts be shortened or cut off", Y be "flesh saved", E be "elect".

1. if not X then not Y but by E is X. (as stated, modus ponens)
2. if Y then X but by E is X. (modens tollens)
E is self-deceived (surrounding verses) and decides that Y needs to be achieved (equivocation on "flesh" and "saved") by doing X (converse fallacy).
3. if X then Y but (since) by E is X. (converse fallacy by E)
E (deceived) decides that X needs to be done to get Y and convinces others "in this way/manner" (surrounding verses).
4. if not Y then not X but (since) by E is X. (restated as fact check fallacy)

In three verses, Jesus will remind us that he had told us this before.

More: Converse fallacy: If A then B does not mean If B then A

More: Fact check fallacy: bad logic and conclusions

More: Equivocation deception between names and meanings

More: Matthew 24:21-24 Short day cutoff

Matthew 24:22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. [kjv]

Paraphrase using the above logic: And if those days [parts there yes] were not cut off (horns/rules removed) no flesh would be saved, but though the (deceived) elect's (false) ideas, those days [parts there yes] will be cut off (horns/rules removed) in order to (invalid logic) save all flesh.

Jesus wants to "cut off" certain unnecessary horns/rules/parts (yoke of compulsion) in order to "save" "all" "flesh" in a "heavenly" manner.
The (deceived) "elect" want to "cut off" all horns/rules/parts in the (false) idea that this will "save" "all" "flesh" in a "worldly" manner.

Discuss: Has it ever happened that false teachers want to "cut off" all horns/rules/parts in order that all "flesh" might be "saved"? Does it help fill the pews (or their own salary)?

More: Matthew 24:21-24 Short day cutoff

Jesus makes the following statement in the Olivet Discourse in Matthew 24.

Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. [kjv]

περι δε της ημερας εκεινης και ωρας ουδεις οιδεν ουδε οι αγγελοι των ουρανων ουδε ο υιος ει μη ο πατηρ μονος [gnt]

The Greek says that the son does not know. This was removed in the TR (Textus Receptus) and does not appear in the KJV. Does Jesus not know? Does the Father know?

Paraphrase: Around then (of) that day and hour, no one sees (with understanding) neither the angels in the heavens neither the son if not [I am] the Father only.

The logic of this statement appears to be not that the father only knows, but that, if anyone would know, it would be the father only.

The TR adds "my" which breaks the play on words.

More: Matthew 24:36 Day and hour

Matthew 12:39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas: [kjv]

ο δε αποκριθεις ειπεν αυτοις γενεα πονηρα και μοιχαλις σημειον επιζητει και σημειον ου δοθησεται αυτη ει μη το σημειον ιωνα του προφητου [gnt]

"εί" ≈ "if, whether".
"μὴ" ≈ "not" (potential).
"εἰμί" ≈ "I am".

More: Jesus as Messiah and King

The Greek word translated as "but" is that of "if" "not" (potentially).

Greek: ... if not the sign (of) Jonah of the prophets.
Play: ... I am the Messiah (of) ages of the before planted ones

A similar translation issue involving negation arises in the "salt" verse in the Sermon on the Mount.

More: Jesus as Messiah and King

More: The one drop of blood salvation fallacy

More: Miraculous signs of the Messiah

More: Matthew 12:38-40 Sign sign everywhere a sign

Assume the pronoun "you" refers to "fasting" as in "not eating". Let the "food" be the "bread" of "life". Do not eat the fruit! Do not feed the birds!

6:19: On earth: (you opened the tunnel)

... where (fasting and bread) disappear ...
... where (fasting disappears) and (bread disappears )...
... where (not eating (not appears)) and (bread (not appears )) ...
... where (eating (the fruit) appears) and (not bread appears) ...

6:20: In heaven: (you closed the tunnel)

... where neither (fasting disappears) nor (bread disappears) ...
... where (not (fasting (not appears))) and (not (bread (not appears))) ...
... where (not (not eating (not appears))) and (bread appears ) ...
... where (not eating (the fruit) appears) and (bread appears) ...

The appears to be a causal relationship in that "eating" or "not" "eating" the "fruit" determines the "appearance" or "disappearance" of the "bread" as "food". You then either open or close the "tunnel" for the "thieves". [type 1 and 2 thinking]

More: Daniel Kahneman

More: Matthew 6:19-21: A treasury of treasures of which to treasure