Questionable statements

English has ways to unambiguously express a question. In many languages, including Greek, a statement and a question are written in exactly the same way. To make a statement a question, one raises the voice at the end of the statement. These non-written hints are not in the Greek text. The Greek language:

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Example:

You have it. (statement of fact)
You have it! (exclamation)
You have it? (raised voice at end)
Do you have it? (common English)

Matthew 5:29 And if thy right eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: for it is profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish, and not that thy whole body should be cast into hell. [kjv]

18:9 And if thine eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life with one eye, rather than having two eyes to be cast into hell fire. [kjv]

The similarities become apparent with the following transformations.

One (or more) Greek words are translated correctly.
A questionable inference is corrected
A simple logical observation is made for the verse in Matthew 5.
Two-valued truth table logic from the mid 1800's is used.

More: Pluck out and cut off in Matthew related

Matthew 18:9 And if thine eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life with one eye, rather than having two eyes to be cast into hell fire. [kjv]

και ει ο οφθαλμος σου σκανδαλιζει σε εξελε αυτον και βαλε απο σου καλον σοι εστιν μονοφθαλμον εις την ζωην εισελθειν η δυο οφθαλμους εχοντα βληθηναι εις την γεενναν του πυρος [gnt]

English has ways to unambiguously express a question. In many languages, including Greek, a statement and a question are written in exactly the same way.
To make a statement a question, one raises the voice at the end of the statement. These non-written hints are not in the Greek text.

Greek word order: ... good (for/to) you is one-eye into the life go ...

This part of the verse can be either a statement or a question. Traditional translations have assumed that it is a statement.

More: Pluck out and cut off in Matthew related

Matthew 18:9 And if thine eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life with one eye, rather than having two eyes to be cast into hell fire. [kjv]

και ει ο οφθαλμος σου σκανδαλιζει σε εξελε αυτον και βαλε απο σου καλον σοι εστιν μονοφθαλμον εις την ζωην εισελθειν η δυο οφθαλμους εχοντα βληθηναι εις την γεενναν του πυρος [gnt]

What Jesus says can be either a statement or a question. To make it a statement, the Greek word for "or" needs to be translated as "rather than". Consider the second part of the verse.

Let A be "enter into life one-eyed".
Let B be "having two eyes and cast into hell".

To support the first alternative being "better" the word for "or" is translated as "rather than".

Translated as a statement: It is better for A rather than B.
Translated as a question: Is it better for A or B?

Let us now look at Matthew 5:29.

More: Pluck out and cut off in Matthew related

Consider the one lost sheep and the ninety-nine sheep that did not go astray.

Matthew 18:13 And if so be that he find it, verily I say unto you, he rejoiceth more of that sheep, than of the ninety and nine which went not astray. [kjv]

και εαν γενηται ευρειν αυτο αμην λεγω υμιν οτι χαιρει επ αυτω μαλλον η επι τοις ενενηκοντα εννεα τοις μη πεπλανημενοις [gnt]

Greek word order: and if come-into-being find he/it amen/verily I-say to-you that rejoices on he/it rather or on the ninety nine that not gone-astray.

The Greek word translated as "than" is the ancient Greek word "ἢ" ≈ "or" as a disjunction. In Greek, a statement can be made a question just by changing the way the end of the statement is pronounced. You hear it. Right?

Paraphrase (as a question): And if (it) comes into being that he find it (the lost sheep), verily I say to you, does he rejoice rather on it or on the ninety nine that did not go astray?

Matthew 18:13 And if so be that he find it, verily I say unto you, he rejoiceth more of that sheep, than of the ninety and nine which went not astray. [kjv]

και εαν γενηται ευρειν αυτο αμην λεγω υμιν οτι χαιρει επ αυτω μαλλον η επι τοις ενενηκοντα εννεα τοις μη πεπλανημενοις [gnt]

Paraphrase (as a question): And if (it) comes into being that he find it (the lost sheep), verily I say to you, does he rejoice rather on it or on the ninety nine that did not go astray?

There are (at least) three possible answers to the question.

He rejoices over the lost sheep more than the not-lost sheep.
He rejoices over the lost sheep the same than the not-lost sheep.
He rejoices over the lost sheep less than the not-lost sheep.

Discuss: How many sermons make deep theological points on what appears to be a question for discussion rather than a statement of fact?

More: Matthew 18:12-14 Sheep astray on a mountain of definitions

Luke 18:25 For it is easier for a camel to go through a needle's eye, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. [kjv]

ευκοπωτερον γαρ εστιν καμηλον δια τρηματος βελονης εισελθειν η πλουσιον εις την βασιλειαν του θεου εισελθειν [gnt]

18:26 And they that heard it said, Who then can be saved? [kjv]

ειπαν δε οι ακουσαντες και τις δυναται σωθηναι [gnt]

18:27 And he said, The things which are impossible with men are possible with God. [kjv]

ο δε ειπεν τα αδυνατα παρα ανθρωποις δυνατα παρα τω θεω εστιν [gnt]

18:28 Then Peter said, Lo, we have left all, and followed thee. [kjv]

ειπεν δε ο πετρος ιδου ημεις αφεντες τα ιδια ηκολουθησαμεν σοι [gnt]

The Greek question word "which of the two is a better work" is changed to a statement "it is easier". The Greek word for "or" (separating the two choices) is changed to "than for".

Why would Peter, who asks insightful and thoughtful questions, be concerned about "leaving" all and following?

More: Whether this or that: What is your opinion on glory?

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There are some places where the translation appears to make a statement into a question. In such cases, the discourse makes more sense with the statement form and less sense with the question form.

Matthew 15:16 And Jesus said, Are ye also yet without understanding? [kjv]

ο δε ειπεν ακμην και υμεις ασυνετοι εστε [gnt]

English has ways to unambiguously express a question. In many languages, including Greek, a statement and a question are written in exactly the same way. To make a statement a question, one raises the voice at the end of the statement. These non-written hints are not in the Greek text.

Question: Are you yet without understanding? This is condescending as if Peter asked a stupid question.
Statement: You are sharp and fresh and without an elite snobbish understanding. It is good to not have this kind of understanding. Then, like the "babes" from Matthew 11:25, Jesus will "reveal" the "parable" to the "babes". This explains the part of those "planted" by God.

Jesus does not use the Greek word for "understanding" in a good sense. Thus, what Jesus says appears to be in a good sense. The only place Jesus uses this word in a somewhat good sense is in the first kingdom parable in Matthew 13 about the sewer and seed. In that case, Jesus is using joke-license to make a play on words.

This first statement of Jesus may seem out of place, but provides the first half of the explanation of the "plant" "planted" by God. The second half is from the list of sins in later verses. Jesus would normally use the Greek word "again" to indicate that he was summarizing and extended discourse of many verses. Here, that would not fit very well and it is clear he is "phrasing" out the parable.

More: Matthew 13:24-30,36-43 KP2 Parable of the wheat and tares

More: A prudent approach to a wise understanding

More: Matthew 15:1-21 Blind leading the blind